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August 29, 2025

Equivalence via Surjections

Posted by Tom Leinster

Pick a type of categorical structure: say bicategories, or monoidal categories, or whatever you like. Some of the functors between structures are equivalences, in whatever the appropriate sense might be. And some of those equivalences have one or both of these two properties:

  • They’re not just essentially surjective in every dimension — they’re actually surjective in every dimension.

  • They don’t just preserve the structure up to isomorphism or equivalence — they strictly preserve it.

Call an equivalence with both these properties a strict surjective equivalence. So a strict surjective equivalence is an equivalence of a very special and easy kind.

General principle: the standard notion of equivalence between structures is generated by just these very special ones. For example, two bicategories are biequivalent if and only if they can be linked up by a zigzag of strict surjective equivalences.

Why should we care? Because there are some types of structure where the right notion of equivalence isn’t clear, and this principle guides us to it. For example, it tells us the right notion of equivalence for double categories.

All this is done in my new paper:

Tom Leinster, Equivalence via surjections. arXiv:2508.20555, 2025.

I started thinking about this question during Maru Sarazola’s invited talk at Category Theory 2025 in Brno last month. She asked the question:

What is the right notion of equivalence between double categories?

and carefully went through the properties that the right notion of equivalence should have, some possible candidates, and different approaches one might take to deciding what “right” means.

The answer that Maru ultimately gave was that the right notion is “gregarious double equivalence”, proposed by Alexander Campbell in about 2020. And she gave a justification in terms of model categories, representing joint work between her, Lyne Moser and Paula Verdugo.

For the purposes of this post, it actually doesn’t matter what “gregarious double equivalence” means. What I want to talk about is the following principle, which popped into my head as Maru was speaking:

For many types of categorical structure, the natural notion of equivalence is generated, as an equivalence relation, by identifying AA and BB when there exists a strict surjective equivalence ABA \to B.

It occurred to me that this principle might give a rather different justification for why gregarious double equivalence is the right answer. And after some checking, I discovered that it does.

Let me explain.

A more concrete way to express the principle is that AA and BB are equivalent in the standard sense — whatever’s appropriate for the structures at hand — if and only if there exists a zigzag of strict surjective equivalences

A=A 0A 1A n=B. A = A_0 \leftarrow A_1 \rightarrow \ \cdots \ \leftarrow A_n = B.

For any type of categorical structure I can think of, the pullback of a strict surjective equivalence is a strict surjective equivalence. So a simpler concrete condition is just that there exists a span of strict surjective equivalences

ACB. A \leftarrow C \rightarrow B.

But hold on… what do I mean by “principle”?

What I mean is that for simple types of categorical structure, where “equivalence” and “strict surjective equivalence”, we have a theorem. Here are three examples.

  • Categories. We certainly know what it means for two categories to be equivalent. A “surjective equivalence” is an equivalence that’s not just essentially surjective on objects, but literally surjective on objects.

    In this case, the theorem is that categories AA and BB are equivalent if and only if there exists a span ACBA \leftarrow C \rightarrow B of surjective equivalences between them.

    (The word “strict” does nothing in this case.)

  • Monoidal categories. Again, we know what monoidal equivalence is, and it’s clear what a “strict surjective equivalence” is: a strict monoidal functor that’s a surjective equivalence of categories.

    The theorem is that monoidal categories AA and BB are monoidally equivalent if and only if there exists a span ACBA \leftarrow C \rightarrow B of strict surjective equivalences between them.

  • Bicategories. The pattern is the same. The standard notion of equivalence for bicategories is biequivalence. A “strict surjective equivalence”, in this setting, is a strict 22-functor that is literally surjective on objects and locally a surjective equivalence of categories. (Or put another way, surjective on 00-cells, locally surjective on 11-cells, and full and faithful on 22-cells.)

    The theorem is that bicategories AA and BB are biequivalent if and only if there exists a span ACBA \leftarrow C \rightarrow B of strict surjective equivalences between them.

Probably all these theorems are known. I included them in my paper because I couldn’t find them anywhere in the literature, not even the first one. But if you know a reference, I’d be glad to hear it.

Since the principle holds for categories, monoidal categories and bicategories, it’s reasonable to suppose that it might hold for other types of structure. And if we’re investigating some type of structure where the full notion of equivalence isn’t clear, this principle might help guide us to it.

For example, here’s a theorem on double categories, the main result of my paper:

  • Double categories. Again, it’s clear what “strict surjective equivalence” should mean: a strict double functor that’s surjective on 00-cells, locally surjective on both horizontal and vertical 11-cells, and full and faithful on 22-cells.

    The theorem is that double categories AA and BB are gregariously double equivalent if and only if there exists a span ACBA \leftarrow C \rightarrow B of strict surjective equivalences between them.

Even without me telling you what “gregarious double equivalence” means, the four theorems I’ve stated suggest that it’s the right notion of equivalence for double categories, because it continues the pattern we’ve seen for simpler categorical structures.

So, I agree with the conclusion that Moser, Sarazola and Verdugo had already reached! But for different reasons.

Incidentally, this must be the fastest paper I’ve ever written: just under six weeks from sitting in Maru’s talk and hearing the mathematical term “gregarious” for the first time ever to putting the paper on the arXiv. But the principle that all equivalences are generated by strict surjective equivalences was planted in my head in the late 1990s or early 2000s by Carlos Simpson. Back then, we were both working on higher category theory, and when he explained this principle, I found it very striking — so striking that I remembered it 20+ years later. There’s a bit more on that higher categorical context in the introduction to my paper.

Posted at August 29, 2025 10:23 PM UTC

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Re: Equivalence via Surjections

Maybe it’s also worth giving some credit to Makkai? His notion of FOLDS-equivalence is also a span of “surjective equivalences”. All of his structures are relational, so there is no notion of algebraic strictness, but it still seems like another general version of this idea.

Posted by: Mike Shulman on August 29, 2025 11:34 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

Ah, thanks, Mike. This is exactly why I tend to leave some time between posting about a preprint here and submitting it.

Posted by: Tom Leinster on August 30, 2025 9:42 AM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

Speaking of Makkai, I think most of the basic references on anafunctors prove that you can take one of the left side of the span to be a surjective equivalence instead merely an equivalence. This gives a reference for case of categories (and also for strict monoidal categories if interpreted internal to the category of monoids).

Posted by: Graham Manuell on September 1, 2025 10:44 AM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

Yes, and in fact I don’t know of any sources that only allow essential surjectivity for the ‘backwards’ leg of the span. Part of my paper on them was showing that for internal categories anafunctors correctly calculate inverting all the weak equivalences, not just the ones where you have an appropriate epimorphism on the level of objects.

Posted by: David Roberts on September 2, 2025 4:42 AM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

Do you have any argument for this principle, other than it seems to work in examples?

I’m not looking for a proof of anything, just a hand-wavy quasi-philosophical reason (or two) to believe that ‘equivalence’ should mean ‘zig-zag of strict surjective equivalences’.

Sometimes when I hear a new principle I think “Oh yeah, that makes tons of sense, why did I never think of that.” This is not happening here. Maybe it could.

Posted by: John Baez on August 30, 2025 8:37 AM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

Unfortunately not. Maybe this is why I found the principle so striking when I first heard it from Carlos Simpson.

The best I can do is sketch the proof, which is essentially the same for all four structures in my paper (categories, monoidal categories, bicategories and double categories).

Start with an equivalence F:ABF: A \to B between categorical structures of whatever type. Let CC be the structure whose objects consist of an object aAa \in A, an object bBb \in B, and an equivalence F(a)bF(a) \to b (and here we’re invoking the notion of equivalence in a structure). Then take the first and second projections

ACB. A \leftarrow C \rightarrow B.

These should be strict surjective equivalences.

To give a little more detail, it’s important to interpret “an equivalence F(a)bF(a) \to b” correctly. For instance, in the bicategory case, you don’t just want a 1-cell F(a)bF(a) \to b that is an equivalence in the bicategory BB. You want the full data of an adjoint equivalence between F(a)F(a) and bb, all specified, not just asserted to exist.

A more abstract way to look at the construction is that the span

APCQB A \stackrel{P}{\leftarrow} C \stackrel{Q}{\rightarrow} B

comes equipped with an isomorphism FPQF \circ P \to Q and is universal as such. I guess this is what’s called an “iso-comma object”, more or less.

I think it must be the case that if we start with equivalences FF and GG with common codomain, then the projections of the resulting iso-comma object are strict surjective equivalences. (In our case, G=1 BG = 1_B.) But I don’t see a really direct explanation of why.

Posted by: Tom Leinster on August 30, 2025 9:48 AM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

I personally think of Tom’s examples as instances of the fact that, in a model category, two fibrant objects are weakly equivalent if and only if they are connected by a span of trivial fibrations.

Posted by: Alexander Campbell on August 30, 2025 2:26 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

Ah, hello, Alexander! Nice to hear from you.

Yes, what I called “surjective equivalences” are what Maru called “trivial fibrations” in her talk, following what you called them in yours. Another reasonable name that’s been used is “contraction”, or “contractible map”.

But John’s question of why? still stands.

Posted by: Tom Leinster on August 30, 2025 4:06 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

I think Alexander’s remark does answer the question, at least for categories. I.e. there exists a model structure on categories (the ‘canonical’ one) whose fibrations are iso-fibrations, and whose weak equivalences are equivalences of categories. Every category is fibrant in this model structure. In any model category, as Alexander remarked, a weak equivalence between fibrant objects is the same as a span of trivial fibrations: this follows easily from the axioms. And a trivial iso-fibration is exactly the same as an equivalence of categories which is surjective on objects.

Thus it is certainly the case that the matter reduces to the question of why the canonical model structure on categories exists. And there are quite conceptual answers to that.

I would strongly suspect that the other examples fit into the same paradigm. One could also phrase it all without model categories, just in terms of observations about iso-fibrations.

As a final remark, there is a dual to everything here: an equivalence of categories is so if and only if there is a span of trivial iso-cofibrations (equivalences which are injective on objects).

Posted by: collateral on August 31, 2025 10:32 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

The other examples do indeed fit into this paradigm, which is what I was trying to say in my comment. The model structures for 2-categories, monoidal categories, and bicategories were constructed by Steve Lack, the one for double categories by me in the talk that Tom linked to in his post. These model structures (and in particular their classes of weak equivalences) are all uniquely determined by the properties that all objects are fibrant and that the trivial fibrations are Tom’s “surjective equivalences”.

Posted by: Alexander Campbell on September 1, 2025 11:11 AM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

Alexander, what about the strictness aspect? Part of the story I’m telling is that structures AA and BB are equivalent if and only if they’re connected by a span of strict surjective equivalences.

Presumably the double functors in your slides were intended to be strict, right? For my purposes it’s crucial that gregarious double equivalences are pseudo, not strict, otherwise the existence of a gregarious double equivalence from one double category to another doesn’t imply the existence of a gregarious double equivalence in the opposite direction.

Posted by: Tom Leinster on September 1, 2025 1:25 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

Yes, in those slides, “double functor” always means a strict double functor, and “double pseudofunctor” means the morphisms of double categories which are pseudofunctorial in both vertical and horizontal arrows. By necessity, the model structure lives on the category with strict morphisms, because a model category must be (at least finitely) complete and cocomplete.

But that’s just a technicality. The model structure still captures the weak morphisms (that’s surely one of the important purposes of model categories), which become the morphisms in the (,1)(\infty,1)-category that the model category presents. In any model category, a weak morphism ABA \to B is a morphism QARBQA \to RB, where QAQA is a cofibrant repolacement of AA amd RBRB is a fibrant replacement of BB. In the examples of model categories that we are considering, all objects are fibrant (so it is unnecessary to take a fibrant replacement), and the “pseudo morphism classifier” of any object is a cofibrant replacement of that object. So the weak morphisms are equivalent to the relevant pseudo morphisms. For example, the weak morphisms in the gregarious model structure for double categories are the double pseudofunctors.

I’m certainly not suggesting that all these results should be proved in terms of model categories. I much prefer a direct elementary proof when possible. But I do find model categories “good to think with”, and I brought them up in this thread because to me they do give a “philosophical reason” answering John’s question to my personal satisfaction. One of the reasons we create theories is to organise the world of mathematical phenomena in our mind, and in my mind this phenomenon is organised as part of the yoga of homotopical algebra, one fruitful way to practice which is in terms of model categories.

Posted by: Alexander Campbell on September 1, 2025 9:33 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

John’s provocative question

Do you have any argument for this principle, other than it seems to work in examples?

should, I think, have a good answer of an elementary kind (by which I partly mean “not involving model categories”).

I’ve been reflecting on this and don’t yet have an answer that I find completely satisfactory, but I think I see it more clearly than I did before.

Recall what the “principle” was:

For many types of categorical structure, the natural notion of equivalence is generated, as an equivalence relation, by identifying AA and BB when there exists a strict surjective equivalence ABA \to B.

I described how this works: given an equivalence F:ABF: A \to B of categories with whatever kind of structure, one constructs the category-with-structure CC whose objects consist of an object aAa \in A, an object bBb \in B, and an equivalence between F(a)F(a) and bb. Higher morphisms are defined in a similar spirit. One can sort of see, in a hand-wavy way, that whatever kind of structure we’re considering, the projections ACBA \leftarrow C \rightarrow B ought to be surjective in every dimension and preserve the structure strictly.

But one could still ask whether this is just a trick, and I’d like to be able to argue that it isn’t.

Although I don’t see the whole story clearly, I believe the fundamental point here is that

Categorical structures are essentially algebraic.

To put it another way, many definitions in category theory are of the form “you’ve got some objects, and you’ve got some maps, and some equations hold”. Crucially, this is the case even if we’re talking about pseudo or lax things.

For example, a strong monoidal functor ABA \to B between monoidal categories consists of an object F(a)F(a) for each aAa \in A, a map F(f):F(a)F(b)F(f): F(a) \to F(b) for each map f:abf: a \to b in AA, an isomorphism ϕ a,b:F(a)F(b)F(ab)\phi_{a, b}: F(a) \otimes F(b) \to F(a \otimes b) for each pair (a,b)(a, b) of objects of AA, and an isomorphism ϕ :I BF(I A)\phi_\cdot: I_B \to F(I_A), such that some equations hold.

From this description, it follows that for each monoidal category AA, we can build another monoidal category AA' such that the strong monoidal functors from AA to an arbitrary monoidal category BB correspond to the strict monoidal functors from AA' to BB. Indeed, AA' is generated as a monoidal category as follows:

  • For each object aa of AA, an object of AA', which you could call just aa or a\langle a \rangle or whatever, but which I’d like to suggestively call F(a)F(a), where now FF is simply a formal symbol.

  • For each map f:abf: a \to b in AA, a map F(a)F(b)F(a) \to F(b) in AA' that I’ll call F(f)F(f), where again the “FF” of F(f)F(f) is just a formal symbol.

  • For each pair (a,b)(a, b) of objects of AA, an isomorphism ϕ a,b:F(a)F(b)F(ab)\phi_{a, b} : F(a) \otimes F(b) \to F(a \otimes b) in AA', and also an isomorphism ϕ :I AF(I A)\phi_\cdot: I_{A'} \to F(I_A) in AA'.

And then, having generated a monoidal category freely from this data, you obtain AA' by quotienting out by all the obvious equations (e.g. F(gf)=F(g)F(f)F(g \circ f) = F(g) \circ F(f) and equations looking like the coherence axioms for a strong monoidal functor).

The property I claimed then follows pretty much by definition: for any monoidal category BB, a strict monoidal functor ABA' \to B amounts to a strong monoidal functor ABA \to B.

There’s a canonical projection P:AAP: A' \to A: “remove the FFs”. It’s a strict monoidal functor, and in fact a surjective equivalence. If we start with a strong monoidal functor F:ABF: A \to B, then we get the corresponding strict monoidal functor F:ABF': A' \to B, hence a span

APAFB A \stackrel{P}{\leftarrow} A' \stackrel{F'}{\rightarrow} B

of strict monoidal categories in which the left leg is a strict surjective equivalence and FPFF \circ P \cong F'.

What I want to emphasize is that this is all a consequence of the very elementary point I mentioned: the definitions of monoidal category and strong monoidal functor are essentially algebraic.

The construction I just described, of AA' from AA, is different from the construction in my paper of the monoidal (or whatever) category CC of equivalences. But it’s along the same lines, and I think it should be possible to understand the construction in my paper in a similar way.

Posted by: Tom Leinster on September 1, 2025 2:06 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

by which I partly mean “not involving model categories”

I think that the story you wish to tell is essentially the same as the one underlying the model categorical point of view, if one unravels everything.

I think a good place to start is the question: what is the correct definition of (the analogue of) an ‘iso-fibration’ in this kind of situation? Roughly speaking the idea is clear: one wishes to lift ‘internal equivalences’ in the appropriate sense. For categories, one wishes to lift isomorphisms between objects. For 2-categories, one wishes to lift equivalences between objects. Etc. Suppose that we impose that our (analogues of) ‘iso-fibrations’ are strict ‘functors’ of the appropriate kind in each case, as you do.

Every external equivalence is not quite (the analogue of) an ‘iso-fibration’ in this sense: one lacks the necessary ‘strictness’ on objects. But given any ‘functor’, there is a universal way to construct a span of ‘iso-fibrations’ from it: the mapping co-cylinder construction (using the free-standing equivalence of the appropriate kind). This is basically the same kind of construction as you sketched. And applied to an equivalence, it has the effect of ‘strictifying’ in the manner you described, so that one obtains actual surjectivity on objects, not only essential surjectivity.

This kind of mapping co-cylinder construction is basically the same idea as is used in the model category setting.

If one does not impose that uses a strict 2-functor (or whatever), I’d imagine one can carry out roughly the same story, where the (strict) mapping co-cylinder is replaced by some 2-pullback (similar in the other cases), but I have not thought it through carefully.

Posted by: collateral on September 1, 2025 7:34 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

This might be a mirage, or a case of superficial similarity rather than anything deeper, but skimming your post and the comments has reminded me of a construction I saw a few years ago in the context of group theory, specficially the notion of isoclinism.

Without getting into the particular definition: isoclinism is an equivalence relation on the class of groups, which is implied by isomorphism but strictly weaker than it: for example, if GG is a group and AA is an abelian group then G×AG\times A is isoclinic to GG.

One can view isoclinisms as (pairs of) mutually inverse morphisms in a suitable category, whose objects are groups, but whose morphisms are not functions between the objects. This feels a bit like “inverting quasi-isomorphisms” when one does Derived Categories And All That Jazz. Anyway, the point is that there is a well-defined way to talk about an isoclinism GHG\to H, but a priori it doesn’t have to come from a function GHG\to H.

The relevance to the present discussion is that

(i) there is a notion of an “isoclinic epimorphism”: this is a surjective group homomorphism GHG \to H that “induces” an isoclinism from GG to HH.

(ii) a result of Wiegold, see Theorem 2.2 of

M. R. Jones, J. Wiegold, Isoclinisms and covering groups. Bull. Austral. Math. Soc. vol. 11 (1974), 71–76. DOI 10.1017/S0004972700043653

says that if there is an isoclinism α:GH\alpha: G \to H, then there is a group PP with isoclinic epimorphisms PGP\to G and PHP\to H. Inspecting the proof, PP is defined to be the subgroup of G×HG\times H consisting of pairs (g,h)(g,h) that are “compatible with” α\alpha, and the isoclinic epimorphisms are given by restriction of the coordinate projections GG×HHG \leftarrow G\times H \rightarrow H. Which looks very like what you sketched in your comment, especially the part where you say that one needs the “full data” of the given equivalence.

I wonder if there is some universal-algebra perspective here, whereby “equivalences” that are defined in terms of equational theories always fit into a span where the two legs are restrictions of “coordinate projections”?

Posted by: Yemon Choi on August 30, 2025 7:08 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

Thanks, Yemon, that’s interesting and I think in the same direction.

The most basic example of the construction used repeatedly in my paper is as follows: given a bijection f:ABf: A \to B between sets, one constructs the graph

C={(a,b)A×B:f(a)=b} C = \{(a, b) \in A \times B : f(a) = b\}

and the projections ACBA \leftarrow C \rightarrow B, which are both in fact bijections. One can deduce from this the completely obvious and silly consequence that two sets are in bijection if and only if there is a span of bijections between them. Obvious and silly though this is, it’s the degenerate analogue of each of the not-so-obvious theorems in my paper.

I mention this because I think it’s also along the lines of your comment, and it has the universal algebra flavour that you mention. In fact, one could replace “set” by “group”, “ring”, “Boolean algebra”, etc., and “bijection” by “isomorphism”, in the previous paragraph and it would still be true.

Posted by: Tom Leinster on September 1, 2025 1:30 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

This is not such a silly idea! In a setting where all maps are computable, you can have a bijection that is computable and the inverse is not computable, Kevin Buzzard discusses this in this blog post.

Posted by: David Roberts on September 2, 2025 4:46 AM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

I would like to clarify that I too gave a justification in terms of model categories of my claim that gregarious double equivalence is the most natural notion of equivalence of double categories already in the 2020 talk in which I introduced them: I proved that a strict double functor is a gregarious double equivalence if and only if it is a weak equivalence in the unique model structure on the category of strict double categories and strict double functors in which every object is fibrant and whose trivial fibrations are (to use Tom’s terminology) the strict surjective equivalences. I will leave it to the reader to judge the extent to which my original justification differs from that presented five years later in Maru’s invited talk.

Posted by: Alexander Campbell on August 31, 2025 9:51 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

Maru certainly spoke extensively about your work, including the gregarious model structure that you introduced in your 2020 talks. I may have done a poor job of conveying the relationship between your work then and her new work with Moser and Verdugo now (still to be published). To be honest, I haven’t really got into the model-categorical aspects. My focus has been purely on the question of equivalence.

It also occurs to me that there’s something a bit risky about putting talk slides on the web. When we prepare slides, we primarily envisage them as a complement to what we’re saying out loud. In other words, they’re only one of the two main components of a talk (visual and spoken). But when we upload slides afterwards, they’re missing their other half, and may sometimes give an inaccurate impression of the talk as a whole.

Posted by: Tom Leinster on September 1, 2025 12:33 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

Hi Tom, Thanks for your interesting paper and blog post.

You focus on the case of strict double categories, where the correct notion of equivalence is gregarious double equivalence. I feel that in the case of pseudo double categories (which is perhaps more interesting than the strict setting), the correct notion of equivalence ought to be something different.

In Section 4.4/4.5 of Adjoint for double categories by Grandis-Paré, they define an equivalence of (pseudo) double categories to be a pseudo functor F:𝔻F \colon \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{D} such that F 0: 0𝔻 0F_{0} \colon \mathbb{C}_{0} \to \mathbb{D}_{0} is an equivalence of categories and F 1: 1𝔻 1F_{1} \colon \mathbb{C}_{1} \to \mathbb{D}_{1} is an equivalence of categories (which is compatible with the internal source/target functors).

Using the Grandis-Paré definition of equivalence, one might define a pseudo functor F:𝔻F \colon \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{D} to be a surjective equivalence if F 0F_{0} and F 1F_{1} are surjective equivalences of categories (compatible with source/target), and prove the theorem that (pseudo) double categories \mathbb{C} and 𝔻\mathbb{D} are equivalent if and only if there exists a double category 𝕏\mathbb{X} and strict surjective equivalences 𝕏\mathbb{X} \to \mathbb{C} and 𝕏𝔻\mathbb{X} \to \mathbb{D}. Do you think this statement is true?

This notion of equivalence is different from the gregarious double equivalence, even if one were to strictify pseudo double categories to strict double categories. In the Grandis-Paré equivalence, “essential surjective on objects” means up to isomorphism rather than up to equivalence, so it is stronger in this sense. It also treats double categories as fundamentally non-symmetric objects (there is no transposition of vertical and horizontal morphisms), where the correct notion of morphism between them is pseudo functor rather than rather than a ”double pseudofunctor” that you work with. Of course, if one changes the morphism between structures, the notion of equivalence should also change!

Posted by: Bryce Clarke on September 1, 2025 8:23 AM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

The Grandis–Paré notion of equivalence that you cite treats pseudo double categories as 11-dimensional objects akin to categories, whereas the notion of gregarious double equivalence (which can be defined for pseudo double categories as well as for strict double categories) treats them as 22-dimensional objects akin to bicategories. Recall that we can regard bicategories as pseudo double categories with only identity “tight” morphisms; the two induced notions of equivalence of bicategories are the bijective-on-objects biequivalences and the biequivalences respectively.

There are a few ways to make this precise. Let me mention just one before I go to sleep. Define the “dimension” of a relative category (𝒞,𝒲)(\mathcal{C},\mathcal{W}) to be the smallest 2n-2 \leq n \leq \infty such that the (,1)(\infty,1)-categorical localisation 𝒞[𝒲 1]\mathcal{C}[\mathcal{W}^{-1}] is an (n,1)(n,1)-category. The localisation of the category of strict/pseudo double categories and strict/pseudo double functors at the Grandis–Paré equivalences has dimension 22, whereas the localisation of the category of strict/pseudo double categories and strict/pseudo double functors or double pseudofunctors (it doesn’t matter which choice of morphism you make, the localisations will be equivalent) at the gregarious double equivalences has dimension 33.

So it all depends on how you want to think about double categories. I personally prefer the notion of gregarious equivalence even for pseudo double categories. For instance, in the pseudo double category of categories and profunctors, I want two objects, i.e. categories, to be seen as the same if they are equivalent, not isomorphic, as categories.

Posted by: Alexander Campbell on September 1, 2025 12:06 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

As to your question, that is indeed true. (Although I’m not sure what you mean by “compatible with source/target”; I’ve chosen to ignore it in my answer.) It’s another instance of the model category fact that I mentioned above, this time applied to the category of strict/pseudo double categories and strict double functors (this time we need strict morphisms in order to get a complete and cocomplete category on which to put a model structure, but the model structure also allows us to capture pseudo double functors via cofibrant replacement) with the “projective” model structure induced from the “levelwise” model structure on the category of graphs internal to Cat\mathbf{Cat}, which is an instance of the model structures for categories of algebras of a 22-monad from one of Steve’s papers.

Posted by: Alexander Campbell on September 1, 2025 12:18 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

Just picking up on one bit of Bryce’s comment:

one might define a pseudo functor F:𝔻F:\mathbb{C}\to\mathbb{D} to be a surjective equivalence if…

The notion of surjective equivalence should be very easy (in fact, Carlos Simpson called them “easy equivalences” in another context). More exactly, it should only refer to the underlying graphs. So the definition should be exactly the same for pseudo double categories as for strict double categories: surjective on objects, horizontally and vertically full, and full and faithful on 22-cells.

Is that the same as the definition you gave in your comment?

Posted by: Tom Leinster on September 1, 2025 1:36 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

The definition I gave would unpack as follows. A pseudofunctor F:𝔻F \colon \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{D} of double categories is a surjective equivalence if:

  • F is surjective on objects.
  • F is tightly fully faithful: for each pair of objects AA and BB in 𝔻\mathbb{D} and tight morphism f:FAFBf \colon FA \to FB in 𝔻\mathbb{D}, there exists a unique tight morphism g:ABg \colon A \to B in \mathbb{C} such that Fg=fFg = f.
  • F is surjective on loose morphisms.
  • F is fully faithful on cells: for each pair of loose morphisms p:ABp \colon A \nrightarrow B and q:CDq \colon C \nrightarrow D in \mathbb{C} and cell α:FpFq\alpha \colon Fp \to Fq in 𝔻\mathbb{D}, there exists a unique cell β:pq\beta \colon p \to q in \mathbb{C} such that Fβ=αF\beta = \alpha.

So this definition is different from the one you gave in your paper, and still only refers to underlying graphs.

Posted by: Bryce Clarke on September 2, 2025 10:48 AM | Permalink | Reply to this

Re: Equivalence via Surjections

Thanks, Bryce. I see what you mean, and that’s interesting.

I feel this shouldn’t be called a surjective equivalence, or rather that it breaks the pattern of other things called “surjective equivalence” in my paper. (This isn’t a comment about terminology, and I’m not wedded to this particular term.) But I’d have a hard time pinning down exactly why.

Posted by: Tom Leinster on September 2, 2025 3:25 PM | Permalink | Reply to this

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